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Tuesday, May 17, 2011

A question for you...

Here is a question that maybe goes beyond what I covered in class so far, but how about doing some thinking and reasoning: 
What do you think will be the consequence of switching from oral administration of a drug to rectal administration, i.e. via a suppository?
And by "consequence" I mean whether you think it would make a difference to the eventual plasma concentration?
(This cannot easily be formulated in form of a multiple choice question. So your reply in the Comment section needs to be in form of a short statement.)


I like to see an answer from everyone - and you won't be punished if you say "I have no idea"..

6 comments:

  1. I think it would have the same eventual plasma concentration because either way it is administered to the GI tract and will therefore have the same systemic effects.

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  2. I change my mind. Rectally would be better because of the first pass effect when taken orally. "bioavailability" would be reduced.

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  3. This comment has been removed by the author.

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  4. Switching to rectal administration means the drug now doesn't pass through the GI tract, but probably diffuses across the rectal lining into the systemic circulation. Now the drug is bypassing the first pass effect. So the same amount of drug via the new route would eventually be seen at higher plasma concentration levels. But to achieve the same plasma concentration as the oral route, one could probably decrease the amount of drug given by adjusting for the new route's bioavalability.

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  5. Although both modes of administration are enteral and deliver to the systemic circulation. The oral route goes through first past loss where as the rectal route doesn't it goes directly into intestines to hit the systemic circulation. Due to such i think rectal drug effects may be faster than oral route but that to may depend on the particulasr drug being taken. In terms of plasma concentration i think rectal would be better.

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  6. p.s great blog Dr. Baer

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